Latest Jan 10, 2026 Real CAP Exam Dumps Questions Valid CAP Dumps PDF
The SecOps Group CAP Exam Dumps - PDF Questions and Testing Engine
The (ISC)2 CAP test measures the knowledge and expertise of the candidates across seven different domains. These are the topics that the learners must develop mastery in before attempting the exam. The details of these domains are highlighted below:
Information Security Risk Management Program (16%):
- Understanding the Fundamentals of an Information Security Risk Management Program for an Organization – This covers the knowledge of the information security principles, information system boundary requirements, roles & responsibilities of an authorized process, as well as mechanisms for the security control allocation. It also covers the understanding of the System Development Life Cycle and RMF integration as well as the National Institute of Standards & Technology Risk Management Framework;
- Understanding the Legal & Regulatory Requirements – This will measure the knowledge of the candidates in relevant privacy legislation, federal information security prerequisites, and other relevant security-related directives.
- Understanding the Processes of a Risk Management Program – This focuses on the knowledge of privacy requirements, enterprise program management controls, and 3rd-party hosted information systems;
NEW QUESTION # 21
Tracy is the project manager of the NLT Project for her company. The NLT Project is scheduled to last 14 months and has a budget at completion of $4,555,000. Tracy's organization will receive a bonus of $80,000 per day that the project is completed early up to $800,000. Tracy realizes that there are several opportunities within the project to save on time by crashing the project work.
Crashing the project is what type of risk response?
- A. Exploit
- B. Transference
- C. Mitigation
- D. Enhance
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 22
After purchasing an item on an e-commerce website, a user can view their order details by visiting the URL:
https://example.com/?order_id=53870
A security researcher pointed out that by manipulating the order_id value in the URL, a user can view arbitrary orders and sensitive information associated with that order_id. There are two fixes:
(Bob's Fix): In order to fix this vulnerability, a developer called Bob devised a fix so that the URL does not disclose the numeric value of the order_id but uses a SHA1 hash of the order_id in the URL, such as:
https://example.com/?order_id=1ff0fe6f1599536d1326418124a261bc98b8ea1
Note: that the SHA1 value of 53870 is 1ff0fe6f1599536d1326418124a261bc98b8ea1 (John's Fix): Another developer called John devised a different fix so that the URL does not disclose the numeric value of the order_id and uses a Base64 encoded value of the order_id in the URL, such as:
https://example.com/?order_id=NTM4NzA=
Note: that the Base64 encoded value of 53870 is NTM4NzA=
Which of the following is correct?
- A. Only Bob's solution fixes the problem
- B. Only John's solution fixes the problem
- C. Both solutions are adequate to fix the problem
- D. Both solutions are inadequate and the vulnerability is still not fixed
Answer: D
Explanation:
The vulnerability described is anInsecure Direct Object Reference (IDOR), where manipulating the order_id (e.g., 53870) allows unauthorized access to other users' orders. The fixes proposed by Bob and John aim to obscure the numeric value of order_id to prevent easy guessing or manipulation:
* Bob's Fix (SHA1 Hash): Replaces order_id=53870 with
order_id=1ff0fe6f1599536d1326418124a261bc98b8ea1 (SHA1 hash of 53870). While this obscures the original value, an attacker can still attempt to hash potential order IDs (e.g., 53871, 53872) and test them in the URL. If the application directly uses the hash to look up the order without validating the user's authorization, the vulnerability persists. SHA1 is aone-way hash, but it does not inherently enforce access control.
* John's Fix (Base64 Encoding): Replaces order_id=53870 with order_id=NTM4NzA= (Base64 encoding of 53870). Base64 is a reversible encoding, and an attacker can easily decode NTM4NzA= back to 53870 using standard tools. If the application decodes it and uses the original value to fetch orders without authorization checks, the IDOR vulnerability remains.
* Evaluation: Both fixes address the symptom (disclosing the numeric value) but fail to address the root cause: lack of authorization validation. The application must ensure that only the authenticated user can access their own orders, regardless of the order_id format (numeric, hashed, or encoded). Neither fix includes such a check, so the vulnerability persists.
* Option A ("Both solutions are adequate to fix the problem"): Incorrect, as neither solution enforces authorization.
* Option B ("Both solutions are inadequate and the vulnerability is still not fixed"): Correct, as both SHA1 hashing and Base64 encoding are superficial changes that do not prevent unauthorized access.
* Option C ("Only John's solution fixes the problem"): Incorrect, as John's Base64 encoding is reversible and does not fix the IDOR issue.
* Option D ("Only Bob's solution fixes the problem"): Incorrect, as Bob's SHA1 hashing also does not address the authorization flaw.
The correct answer is B, aligning with the CAP syllabus under "Insecure Direct Object References (IDOR)" and "Access Control Best Practices."References: SecOps Group CAP Documents - "IDOR Mitigation,"
"Cryptographic Hashing," and "OWASP Access Control Testing Guide" sections.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which of the following requires all general support systems and major applications to be fully certified and accredited before these systems and applications are put into production?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Office of Management and Budget (OMB)
- B. FISMA
- C. FIPS
- D. NIST
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which of the following is NOT considered an environmental threat source?
- A. Pollution
- B. Chemical
- C. Hurricane
- D. Water
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
NEW QUESTION # 25
Your project uses a piece of equipment that if the temperature of the machine goes above 450 degree Fahrenheit the machine will overheat and have to be shut down for 48 hours. Should this machine overheat even once it will delay the project's end date. You work with your project to create a response that should the temperature of the machine reach 430, the machine will be paused for at least an hour to cool it down. The temperature of 430 is called what?
- A. Risk event
- B. Risk trigger
- C. Risk identification
- D. Risk response
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
NEW QUESTION # 26
Virginia is the project manager for her organization. She has hired a subject matter expert to interview the project stakeholders on certain identified risks within the project. The subject matter expert will assess the risk event with what specific goal in mind?
- A. To determine the bias of the risk event based on each person interviewed
- B. To determine the validity of each risk event
- C. To determine the probability and cost of the risk event
- D. To determine the level of probability and impact for each risk event
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 27
An Authorizing Official plays the role of an approver. What are the responsibilities of an
Authorizing Official?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Reviewing security status reports and critical security documents
- B. Establishing and implementing the organization's continuous monitoring program
- C. Ascertaining the security posture of the organization's information system
- D. Determining the requirement of reauthorization and reauthorizing information systems when required
Answer: A,C,D
NEW QUESTION # 28
While performing a security audit of a web application, you discovered an exposed docker-compose.yml file.
What is the significance of this file and what data can be found in it?
- A. The docker-compose.yml file is a YAML file that contains the application source code.
- B. The docker-compose.yml file is a YAML file that contains the configuration of load balancers and firewalls.
- C. The docker-compose.yml file is a YAML file that is used to define the services, networks, and volumes required for a Docker application. It specifies the configuration and dependencies for all containers in the application, including their network settings and container volumes.
- D. The docker-compose.yml file is a YAML file that contains the server logs and user session information including but not limited to admin users.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A docker-compose.yml file is a YAML-formatted configuration file used with Docker Compose, a tool for defining and running multi-container Docker applications. Its primary significance lies in orchestrating the deployment of Docker containers by specifying services (e.g., web server, database), networks (e.g., internal communication), and volumes (e.g., persistent storage). An exposed docker-compose.yml file poses a security risk because it may reveal sensitive configuration details, such as service names, ports, environment variables (e.g., database credentials), and network settings, which attackers could exploit to target the application.
* Option A ("The docker-compose.yml file is a YAML file that contains the application source code"): Incorrect, as this file defines configuration and orchestration, not source code.
* Option B ("The docker-compose.yml file is a YAML file that contains the server logs and user session information..."): Incorrect, as logs and session data are stored elsewhere (e.g., in container logs or databases), not in docker-compose.yml.
* Option C ("The docker-compose.yml file is a YAML file that is used to define the services, networks, and volumes..."): Correct, as it accurately describes the file's purpose and content, including configuration and dependencies, which are critical for Docker applications.
* Option D ("The docker-compose.yml file is a YAML file that contains the configuration of load balancers and firewalls"): Incorrect, as it focuses only on load balancers and firewalls, which are specific components and not the primary focus of the file.
The correct answer is C, aligning with the CAP syllabus under "Container Security" and "Configuration Management."References: SecOps Group CAP Documents - "Docker Security," "Container Orchestration," and "OWASP Application Security Verification Standard (ASVS)" sections.
NEW QUESTION # 29
In the context of the Race Condition vulnerability, which of the following statements is true?
- A. A situation that occurs when a single thread unpredictably accesses two resources.
- B. A situation that occurs when two threads access the same resource at the same time.
- C. A situation that occurs when a single thread predictably accesses two resources.
- D. A situation that occurs when two threads access different resources at the same time.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Race Condition vulnerability occurs in multi-threaded or multi-process applications when two or more threads access a shared resource concurrently, and the outcome depends on the non-deterministic order of their execution. This can lead to inconsistent states or security issues, such as privilege escalation or data corruption, if the access is not properly synchronized (e.g., using locks or semaphores). The classic definition focuses on concurrent access to the same resource.
* Option A ("A situation that occurs when two threads access the same resource at the same time")
: Correct, as this accurately describes a race condition where the lack of synchronization on a shared resource (e.g., a file, variable, or database entry) can lead to unpredictable behavior.
* Option B ("A situation that occurs when two threads access different resources at the same time")
: Incorrect, as race conditions specifically involve contention over the same resource, not different ones.
* Option C ("A situation that occurs when a single thread unpredictably accesses two resources"):
Incorrect, as race conditions require multiple threads or processes; a single thread's behavior is not a race condition.
* Option D ("A situation that occurs when a single thread predictably accesses two resources"):
Incorrect, as predictability negates the race condition concept, and it still involves only one thread.
The correct answer is A, aligning with the CAP syllabus under "Race Condition Vulnerabilities" and "Multi- Threaded Security."References: SecOps Group CAP Documents - "Concurrency Issues," "Race Conditions," and "OWASP Secure Coding Practices" sections.
NEW QUESTION # 30
In the screenshot below, an attacker is attempting to exploit which vulnerability?
POST /upload.php HTTP/1.1
Host: example.com
Cookie: session=xyz123;JSESSIONID=abc123
User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 10.0; Win64; x64) rv:107.0
Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,image/avif,image/webp,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-US,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate Content-Type: multipart/form-data; boundary=----WebKitFormBoundary7MA4YWxkTrZu0gW Content-Length: 12345 Connection: keep-alive Content-Disposition: form-data; name="avatar"; filename="malicious.php" Content-Type: image/jpeg
<?php
phpinfo();
?>
- A. HTTP Desync Attack
- B. Server-Side Request Forgery
- C. File Path Traversal Attack
- D. File Upload Vulnerability
Answer: D
Explanation:
The screenshot shows an HTTP POST request to /upload.php with a multipart/form-data payload, where the attacker uploads a file named malicious.php disguised as an image/jpeg but containing PHP code (<?php phpinfo(); ?>). This indicates an attempt to exploit aFile Upload Vulnerability. Such vulnerabilities occur when an application allows users to upload files without proper validation or sanitization, enabling attackers to upload malicious scripts (e.g., PHP) that can be executed on the server. In this case, if the server executes the uploaded malicious.php, it could expose server information via phpinfo() or perform other malicious actions.
Option A ("HTTP Desync Attack") involves manipulating HTTP request pipelines, which is not relevant here as the request appears standard. Option B ("File Path Traversal Attack") involves accessing unauthorized files using ../, which is not evident in this request. Option D ("Server-Side Request Forgery") involves tricking the server into making unintended requests, which does not apply to file uploads. Thus, C is the correct answer, aligning with the CAP syllabus under "File Handling Security" and "OWASP Top 10 (A05:2021 - Security Misconfiguration)."References: SecOps Group CAP Documents - "File Upload Vulnerabilities," "Input Validation," and "OWASP Top 10" sections.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following acts is used to recognize the importance of information security to the economic and national security interests of the United States?
- A. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
- B. Computer Misuse Act
- C. FISMA
- D. Lanham Act
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following relations correctly describes total risk?
- A. Total Risk = Threats x Vulnerability x Asset Value
- B. Total Risk = Viruses x Exploit x Asset Value
- C. Total Risk = Threats x Exploit x Asset Value
- D. Total Risk = Viruses x Vulnerability x Asset Value
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 33
There are five inputs to the quantitative risk analysis process. Which one of the following is NOT an input to the perform quantitative risk analysis process?
- A. Cost management plan
- B. Enterprise environmental factors
- C. Risk management plan
- D. Risk register
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 34
System Authorization is the risk management process. System Authorization Plan (SAP) is a comprehensive and uniform approach to the System Authorization Process. What are the different phases of System Authorization Plan?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Pre-certification
- B. Certification
- C. Post-Authorization
- D. Authorization
- E. Post-certification
Answer: A,B,C,D
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the following is NOT a phase of the security certification and accreditation process?
- A. Operation
- B. Initiation
- C. Maintenance
- D. Security certification
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
NEW QUESTION # 36
Thomas is the project manager of the NHJ Project for his company. He has identified several positive risk events within his project and he thinks these events can save the project time and money. Positive risk events, such as these within the NHJ Project are also known as what?
- A. Opportunities
- B. Benefits
- C. Ancillary constituent components
- D. Contingency risks
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which HTTP header is used by the CORS (Cross-origin resource sharing) standard to control access to resources on a server?
- A. Access-Control-Request-Headers
- B. None of the above
- C. Access-Control-Allow-Headers
- D. Access-Control-Request-Method
Answer: C
Explanation:
Cross-Origin Resource Sharing (CORS) is a security mechanism that allows servers to specify which origins can access their resources, relaxing the Same-Origin Policy (SOP) for legitimate cross-origin requests. CORS uses specific HTTP headers to control this access. The key header for controlling access to resources isAccess- Control-Allow-Origin, which specifies which origins are permitted to access the resource. However, among the provided options, the closest related header isAccess-Control-Allow-Headers, which is part of the CORS standard and controls which request headers can be used in the actual request (e.g., during a preflight OPTIONS request).
* Option A ("Access-Control-Request-Method"): This header is sent by the client in a preflight request to indicate the HTTP method (e.g., GET, POST) that will be used in the actual request. It is not used by the server to control access.
* Option B ("Access-Control-Request-Headers"): This header is sent by the client in apreflight request to list the headers it plans to use in the actual request. It is not used by the server to control access.
* Option C ("Access-Control-Allow-Headers"): This header is sent by the server in response to a preflight request, specifying which headers are allowed in the actual request. While Access-Control- Allow-Origin is the primary header for controlling access, Access-Control-Allow-Headers is part of the CORS standard to manage header-based access control, making this the best match among the options.
* Option D ("None of the above"): Incorrect, as Access-Control-Allow-Headers is a CORS header.
The correct answer is C, aligning with the CAP syllabus under "CORS Security" and "HTTP Headers." References: SecOps Group CAP Documents - "CORS Configuration," "Security Headers," and "OWASP Secure Headers Guide" sections.
NEW QUESTION # 38
The DNS entries forwww.ironman.comandwww.hulk.comboth point to the same IP address i.e., 1.3.3.7. How does the web server know which web application is being requested by the end user's browser?
- A. The web server uses a reverse DNS lookup of the client's IP address.
- B. The web server inspects the client's SSL certificate.
- C. The web server inspects the HTTP "Host" header sent by the client.
- D. The web server inspects the cookies sent by the client.
Answer: C
Explanation:
When multiple domain names (e.g.,www.ironman.comandwww.hulk.com) resolve to the same IP address (e.
g., 1.3.3.7), a web server hosting multiple applications on that IP must determine which application to serve.
This is achieved using theHTTP "Host" header, which is part of the HTTP/1.1 protocol. The client (browser) includes the requested domain (e.g., Host: www.ironman.com) in the request, allowing the server to route the request to the appropriate virtual host or application configured for that domain. This is a standard practice in virtual hosting.
* Option A ("The web server inspects the HTTP 'Host' header sent by the client"): Correct, as the Host header enables the server to distinguish between applications on the same IP.
* Option B ("The web server inspects the cookies sent by the client"): Incorrect, as cookies are used for session management or personalization, not for identifying the requested application.
* Option C ("The web server inspects the client's SSL certificate"): Incorrect, as SSL certificates are used for encryption and authentication, not for application routing (though they may include the domain name for validation).
* Option D ("The web server uses a reverse DNS lookup of the client's IP address"): Incorrect, as reverse DNS lookup resolves an IP to a domain, which is irrelevant for the server determining the requested application.
The correct answer is A, aligning with the CAP syllabus under "Web Server Configuration" and "HTTP Protocol Security."References: SecOps Group CAP Documents - "HTTP Headers," "Virtual Hosting," and
"OWASP Web Security Testing Guide" sections.
NEW QUESTION # 39
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