[Q76-Q96] Free 156-215.82 Questions for CheckPoint 156-215.82 Exam [Jun-2026]

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Free 156-215.82 Questions for CheckPoint 156-215.82 Exam [Jun-2026]

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NEW QUESTION # 76
Which of the following blades is NOT subscription-based and therefore does not have to be renewed on a regular basis?

  • A. Threat Emulation
  • B. Application Control
  • C. Advanced Networking Blade
  • D. Anti-Virus

Answer: C

Explanation:
The Advanced Networking Blade is NOT subscription-based and therefore does not have to be renewed on a regular basis1011.The Advanced Networking Blade provides advanced routing capabilities such as BGP, OSPF, VRRP, and multicast routing10.The other blades are subscription-based and require annual renewal to receive updates and support from Check Point1012.


NEW QUESTION # 77
An administrator wishes to enable Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls. However they allow users to use company issued or personal laptops. Since the administrator cannot manage the personal laptops, which of the following methods would BEST suit this company?

  • A. AD Query
  • B. Identity Agents
  • C. Browser-Based Authentication
  • D. Terminal Servers Agent

Answer: C

Explanation:
Browser-Based Authentication is the best method for enabling Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls for users who use company issued or personal laptops. Browser-Based Authentication redirects users to a web page where they enter their credentials to access the network resources. This method does not require any installation or configuration on the user's device and supports any operating system and browser. AD Query is a method that queries Active Directory servers for user login events and maps them to IP addresses. This method does not work for personal laptops that are not joined to the domain. Identity Agents are software agents that run on Windows or macOS devices and provide user and machine identity information to the firewall. This method requires installation and management of the agents on each device, which may not be feasible for personal laptops. Terminal Servers Agent is a method that identifies users who connect to Windows Terminal Servers or Citrix servers via RDP or ICA protocols.This method does not apply to laptops that connect directly to the network910Identity Awareness Reference Architecture and Best Practices,Part 10 - Identity


NEW QUESTION # 78
Which SmartConsole tab shows logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?

  • A. Logs and Monitor
  • B. Manage Seeting
  • C. Gateway and Servers
  • D. Security Policies

Answer: A

Explanation:
The SmartConsole tab that shows logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices, is Logs and Monitor1, p. 24. The Logs and Monitor tab allows administrators to view logs from various sources, such as Security Gateways, SmartEvent servers, and SmartReporter servers. Gateway and Servers, Manage Setting, and Security Policies are other tabs in SmartConsole that have different functions. Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation, [Check Point SmartConsole R81 Help]


NEW QUESTION # 79
To increase security, the administrator has modified the Core protection 'Host Port Scan' from 'Medium' to 'High' Predefined Sensitivity. Which Policy should the administrator install after Publishing the changes?

  • A. The Access Control Policy.
  • B. The Access Control & HTTPS Inspection Policy.
  • C. The Access Control and Threat Prevention Policies.
  • D. The Threat Prevention Policy.

Answer: D

Explanation:
To increase security, the administrator has modified the Core protection 'Host Port Scan' from 'Medium' to 'High' Predefined Sensitivity.The administrator should install theThreat Prevention Policyafter Publishing the changes3.The Threat Prevention Policy defines how the Security Gateway inspects and protects against threats such as port scans, bot attacks, and zero-day exploits4. Check Point R81 Firewall Administration Guide,Check Point R81 Threat Prevention Administration Guide


NEW QUESTION # 80
Your internal networks 10.1.1.0/24, 10.2.2.0/24 and 192.168.0.0/16 are behind the Internet Security Gateway. Considering that Layer 2 and Layer 3 setup is correct, what are the steps you will need to do in SmartConsole in order to get the connection working?

  • A. 1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a public IP.3. Publish the policy.
  • B. 1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define Security Gateway to hide all internal networks behind the gateway's external IP.3. Publish the policy.
  • C. 1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a public IP.3. Publish and install the policy.
  • D. 1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define Security Gateway to hide all internal networks behind the gateway's external IP.3. Publish and install the policy.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The steps you will need to do in SmartConsole in order to get the connection working behind the Internet Security Gateway are:
Define an accept rule in Security Policy. This rule allows the traffic from your internal networks to pass through the Security Gateway.
Define automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a public IP. This option translates the private IP addresses of your internal networks to a public IP address assigned by your ISP router. This way, your internal networks can communicate with the Internet using a valid IP address.
Publish and install the policy. This step applies the changes you made to the Security Gateway and activates the security and NAT rules.


NEW QUESTION # 81
When using Automatic Hide NAT, what is enabled by default?

  • A. Source Port Address Translation (PAT)
  • B. Static Route
  • C. Static NAT
  • D. HTTPS Inspection

Answer: A

Explanation:
When using Automatic Hide NAT,Source Port Address Translation (PAT)is enabled by default1. This means that the source IP address and port number are translated to a different IP address and port number. This allows multiple hosts to share a single IP address for outbound connections. Check Point R81 Firewall Administration Guide


NEW QUESTION # 82
True or False: The destination server for Security Gateway logs depends on a Security Management Server configuration.

  • A. False, log servers are configured on the Log Server General Properties
  • B. True, all Security Gateways forward logs automatically to the Security Management Server
  • C. True, all Security Gateways will only forward logs with a SmartCenter Server configuration
  • D. False, log servers are enabled on the Security Gateway General Properties

Answer: C

Explanation:
The destination server for Security Gateway logs depends on a Security Management Server configuration. This is true because the Security Management Server defines the log servers that receive logs from the Security Gateways.The log servers can be either the Security Management Server itself or a dedicated Log Server12. Check Point R81 Logging and Monitoring Administration Guide,Check Point R81 Quantum Security Gateway Guide


NEW QUESTION # 83
When should you generate new licenses?

  • A. Only when the license is upgraded.
  • B. Before installing contract files.
  • C. After an RMA procedure when the MAC address or serial number of the appliance changes.
  • D. When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address where the license is tied changes.

Answer: D

Explanation:
You should generate new licenses when the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address where the license is tied changes13.These scenarios require a new license to be generated and activated on the Security Gateway or Management Server13. Therefore, the correct answer is C.When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address where the license is tied changes


NEW QUESTION # 84
A stateful inspection firewall works by registering connection data and compiling this information. Where is the information stored?

  • A. In the Sessions table.
  • B. In State tables.
  • C. In a CSV file on the firewall hard drive located in $FWDIR/conf/.
  • D. In the system SMEM memory pool.

Answer: B

Explanation:
A stateful inspection firewall works by registering connection data and compiling this information in state tables. State tables are data structures that store information about the state and context of each connection, such as source, destination, service, protocol, sequence number, flags, etc. State tables enable the firewall to inspect both the header and the payload of each packet and apply security policies accordingly.[Stateful Inspection], [State Tables]


NEW QUESTION # 85
When dealing with rule base layers, what two layer types can be utilized?

  • A. Inbound Layers and Outbound Layers
  • B. R81.10 does not support Layers
  • C. Ordered Layers and Inline Layers
  • D. Structured Layers and Overlap Layers

Answer: C

Explanation:
When dealing with rule base layers, two layer types can be utilized: Ordered Layers and Inline Layers5. Ordered Layers are executed sequentially according to their order in the policy. Inline Layers are embedded in a parent layer and are executed only if the parent rule matches. Check Point R81 Firewall Administration Guide, [Check Point R81 Security Management Administration Guide]


NEW QUESTION # 86
Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.

  • A. There is one default user that cannot be deleted.
  • B. There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.
  • C. There are two default users and neither can be deleted.
  • D. There is one default user that can be deleted.

Answer: C

Explanation:
There are two default users on Gaia Platform and neither can be deleted. The two default users are admin and monitor. The admin user has full access to the Gaia configuration and management tools, such as CLI and WebUI. The monitor user has read-only access to the Gaia configuration and management tools, and can only view the system status and settings. These two users cannot be deleted, but their passwords can be changed.[Gaia Administration Guide], [Gaia Overview]


NEW QUESTION # 87
Which of the following is NOT an advantage to using multiple LDAP servers?

  • A. Information on a user is hidden, yet distributed across several servers.
  • B. You achieve compartmentalization by allowing a large number of users to be distributed across several servers
  • C. You gain High Availability by replicating the same information on several servers
  • D. You achieve a faster access time by placing LDAP servers containing the database at remote sites

Answer: A

Explanation:
The statement that information on a user is hidden, yet distributed across several servers is not an advantage to using multiple LDAP servers. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is a protocol that allows access to a centralized directory service that stores information about users, groups, devices, etc. Using multiple LDAP servers can provide advantages such as faster access time, compartmentalization, and high availability, but not hiding information. Information on a user is not hidden by using multiple LDAP servers, but rather replicated or partitioned across them. Replication means that the same information is copied to all LDAP servers, while partitioning means that different information is stored on different LDAP servers. Both methods aim to improve performance and reliability, not security or privacy.[LDAP Integration], [LDAP]


NEW QUESTION # 88
Which of the following is an authentication method used for Identity Awareness?

  • A. RSA
  • B. PKI
  • C. SSL
  • D. Captive Portal

Answer: D

Explanation:
Captive Portal is an authentication method used for Identity Awareness4. Captive Portal is a web-based authentication method that redirects users to a browser-based login page when they try to access the network. Users must provide their credentials to access the network resources.Captive Portal can be used for guest users or users who are not identified by other methods4. SSL, PKI, and RSA are not authentication methods used for Identity Awareness, but rather encryption or certificate technologies. Identity Awareness Reference Architecture and Best Practices


NEW QUESTION # 89
Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

  • A. All-in-one (stand-alone)
  • B. Distributed
  • C. CloudGuard
  • D. Bridge Mode

Answer: C

Explanation:
CloudGuard is not a valid deployment option for R80. CloudGuard is a product name for Check Point's cloud security solutions, not a deployment mode. The valid deployment options for R80 are all-in-one (stand-alone), distributed, and bridge mode. In an all-in-one deployment, the Security Management Server and Security Gateway are installed on the same machine. In a distributed deployment, the Security Management Server and Security Gateway are installed on separate machines.In a bridge mode deployment, the Security Gateway acts as a transparent bridge between two network segments and does not have an IP address of its own3CloudGuard, [Part 4 - Installing Security Gateway], [Deployment Options]


NEW QUESTION # 90
Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a ___________ for user authentication.

  • A. Certificate
  • B. Shared secret
  • C. One-time password
  • D. Token

Answer: B

Explanation:
The answer is A because an identity server uses a shared secret for user authentication. A shared secret is a passphrase that is known by both the identity server and the user. The identity server sends a challenge to the user, who encrypts it with the shared secret and sends it back.The identity server then verifies the response and authenticates the user12Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Administration Guide,Check Point R81 Identity Server


NEW QUESTION # 91
You are going to perform a major upgrade. Which back up solution should you use to ensure your database can be restored on that device?

  • A. backup
  • B. logswitch
  • C. snapshot
  • D. Database Revision

Answer: C

Explanation:
The back up solution that should be used to ensure your database can be restored on that device is snapshot . A snapshot creates a binary image of the entire root (lv_current) disk partition. This includes Check Point products, configuration, and operating system. A snapshot can be used to restore a Security Gateway or Security Management Server to its previous state at any time . Therefore, the correct answer is D. snapshot.


NEW QUESTION # 92
What is a reason for manual creation of a NAT rule?

  • A. In R80 all Network Address Translation is done automatically and there is no need for manually defined NAT-rules.
  • B. Network Address Translation is desired for some services, but not for others.
  • C. The public IP-address is different from the gateway's external IP
  • D. Network Address Translation of RFC1918-compliant networks is needed to access the Internet.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A reason for manual creation of a NAT rule is when the public IP-address is different from the gateway's external IP.This can happen when the gateway is behind another NAT device or firewall3. Check Point R81 Security Gateway Administration Guide,Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation


NEW QUESTION # 93
Which GUI tool can be used to view and apply Check Point licenses?

  • A. SmartConsole
  • B. cpconfig
  • C. SmartUpdate
  • D. Management Command Line

Answer: C

Explanation:
The GUI tool that can be used to view and apply Check Point licenses is SmartUpdate.SmartUpdate is a centralized tool that allows you to manage licenses, software packages, and hotfixes for multiple gateways and clusters12. cpconfig, Management Command Line, and SmartConsole are not tools for license management. Check Point R81 SmartUpdate Administration Guide,Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation | Udemy


NEW QUESTION # 94
What is NOT an advantage of Stateful Inspection?

  • A. No Screening above Network layer
  • B. Transparency
  • C. Good Security
  • D. High Performance

Answer: A

Explanation:
The option that is NOT an advantage of Stateful Inspection isNo Screening above Network layer. Stateful Inspection is a firewall technology that inspects packets at all layers of the OSI model, from layer 3 (Network) to layer 7 (Application). Stateful Inspection provides screening above Network layer, such as checking TCP flags, sequence numbers, ports, and application protocols . The other options are advantages of Stateful Inspection, as it provides high performance, good security, and transparency for legitimate traffic.


NEW QUESTION # 95
Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?

  • A. Logs & Monitor
  • B. Gateway & Servers
  • C. Manage & Settings
  • D. Security Policies

Answer: A

Explanation:
Logs & Monitor is the SmartConsole tab that is used to monitor network and security performance. This tab allows you to view and analyze logs and events from various sources, such as Security Gateways, Security Management Servers, and SmartEvent Servers. You can also use this tab to generate reports and troubleshoot issues. [Logging and Monitoring Administration Guide R80.20]


NEW QUESTION # 96
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